The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board is a Nigerian entrance examination board for tertiary-level institutions.
The board conducts entrance Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination for prospective undergraduates into Nigerian universities.
To increase your chances of success and adequately study for the next Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination, get the JAMB Past Questions and Answers for 2024.
About JAMB
An organization in Nigeria called the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) assists students in gaining admission to colleges. 1978 saw the beginning of it. The Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME) is the test they administer. For students hoping to attend Nigerian universities, polytechnics, monotechnics, or colleges of education, this exam is crucial.
They conduct the UTME annually. Students have two hours to complete 180 questions on this test. Following each exam, JAMB determines the minimum scores required to get admission to various schools. Currently serving as the JAMB coordinator is Prof. Ishaq Oloyede.
Locations where students can use computers to take the test are also approved by JAMB. Concerns about losing access to computers and the internet are shared by some pupils. However, even without access to a computer, students can still prepare for the UTME by visiting a variety of websites.
JAMB CBT Centres
An agency in Nigeria called the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) assists applicants in getting into universities and other higher education institutions. 1978 saw the beginning of it. Every year, they hold a large exam known as the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME).
This exam is crucial since it determines whether or not students will be admitted to the institution. Students have two hours to complete 180 questions in the test.
Following each exam, JAMB determines the minimum scores required for certain schools. Currently serving as the JAMB coordinator is Prof. Ishaq Oloyede.
They also select the testing location for students. Concerns exist that some students might not have access to computers or the internet in time for the exam. Even without access to a computer at home, students can still prepare for the test by visiting a variety of websites and locations.
JAMB Practice Platforms
Websites known as “JAMB Practice Platforms” assist students in preparing for the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME). The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board is in charge of organizing this exam (JAMB). JAMB hasn’t formally stated which websites are the finest, although there are plenty of unofficial ones out there.
JAMB Past Questions and Answers 2024
PHYSICS
What is the SI unit of force?
A) Newton (N)
B) Joule (J)
C) Pascal (Pa)
D) Watt (W)
Answer: A) Newton (N)
Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?
A) Force
B) Velocity
C) Distance
D) Acceleration
Answer: C) Distance
What does the abbreviation “AC” stand for in electrical terms?
A) Alternating Current
B) Ampere Current
C) Advanced Circuit
D) Alternating Circuit
Answer: A) Alternating Current
Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
A) Coal
B) Natural Gas
C) Solar
D) Petroleum
Answer: C) Solar
What is the formula to calculate work done?
A) Force × Time
B) Mass × Acceleration
C) Force × Distance
D) Mass × Velocity
Answer: C) Force × Distance
In which state of matter do particles have the most energy and least attraction to each other?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma
Answer: C) Gas
What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
A) 3 × 10^8 m/s
B) 3 × 10^6 m/s
C) 3 × 10^10 m/s
D) 3 × 10^12 m/s
Answer: A) 3 × 10^8 m/s
What is the unit of electrical resistance?
A) Ohm (Ω)
B) Volt (V)
C) Ampere (A)
D) Watt (W)
Answer: A) Ohm (Ω)
Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed?
A) Zeroth Law
B) First Law
C) Second Law
D) Third Law
Answer: B) First Law
What is the formula to calculate the period of a pendulum?
A) T = 2π√(L/g)
B) T = 2π(L/g)
C) T = π√(L/g)
D) T = π(L/g)
Answer: A) T = 2π√(L/g)
An open-tube mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure in a gas tank. When the atmospheric pressure is 101,325 Pa, what is the absolute pressure in the tank if the height of the mercury in the open tube is 25 cm higher?
A) 108,986 Pa
B) 165,238 Pa
C) 122,364 Pa
D) 134,645 Pa
Answer: D
What is the name of the model of the atom that describes electrons as orbiting the nucleus in specific energy levels?
A) Bohr model
B) Dalton model
C) Rutherford model
D) Thomson model
Answer: A
A missile is launched with a speed of 75 m/s at an angle of 22° above the surface of a warship. Find the horizontal range achieved by the missile. Ignore the effects of air resistance.
A) 195 m
B) 271 m
C) 391 m
D) 136 m
Answer: C
Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension?
A) Soapy water
B) Water
C) Mercury
D) Oil
Answer: C
A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap is made of tin plates and 20 mm apart. It is connected to a 120 V battery. What is the charge on each plate?
A) 3.54 nC
B) 42.5 nC
C) 35.4 nC
D) 4.25 nC
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT an example of elementary modern physics?
A) Quantum mechanics
B) Classical mechanics
C) Special relativity
D) Nuclear physics
Answer: B
On a particular hot day, the temperature is 40°C and the partial pressure of water vapor in the air is 38.8 mmHg. What is the relative humidity?
A) 70
B) 62
C) 80
D) 42
Answer: A
An object is placed 35 cm away from a convex mirror with a focal length of magnitude 15 cm. What is the location of the image?
A) 26.25 cm behind the mirror
B) 10.5 cm behind the mirror
C) 26.25 cm in front of the mirror
D) 10.5 cm in front of the mirror
Answer: B
Find the tension in the two cords shown in the figure above. Neglect the mass of the cords, and assume that the angle is 38° and the mass m is 220 kg.
A) = 2864 N, = 3612 N
B) = 3612 N, = 2864 N
C) = 3502 N, = 2760 N
D) = 2760 N, = 3502 N
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of experimental measurements?
A) Systematic error
B) Instrument resolution
C) Random errors
D) Human error
Answer: B
A 400 N box is being pushed across a level floor at a constant speed by a force P of 100 N at an angle of 30.0° to the horizontal. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor?
A) 0.19
B) 0.24
C) 0.40
D) 0.22
Answer: A
Light of wavelength 589 nm in vacuum passes through a piece of fused quartz of index of refraction n = 1.458. What is the frequency of the light in fused quartz?
A) Hz
B) Hz
C) Hz
D) Hz
Answer: B
A piano wire 50 cm long has a total mass of 10 g and is stretched with a tension of 800 N. Find the frequency of the wire when it sounds its third overtone note.
A) 800 Hz
B) 600 Hz
C) 400 Hz
D) 200 Hz
Answer: A
Which of the following is/are not true about the heat capacity of a substance?
A) (i) and (iii) only
B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
C) (i) and (iv) only
D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding the application of electrical conduction via gases is/are correct?
A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: B
The sensitivity of a thermometer is
A) All of the above
B) how quickly a temperature change can be detected
C) the difference between the maximum and the minimum temperature
D) the smallest temperature change that can be detected or measured
Answer: D (the smallest temperature change that can be detected or measured)
Name the type of equilibrium for each position of the ball
A) A – unstable, B – neutral, C – stable
B) A – stable, B – neutral, C – unstable
C) A – stable, B – unstable, C – neutral
D) A – unstable, B – stable, C – neutral
Answer: D (A – unstable, B – stable, C – neutral)
The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor
A) is equal to the number of free electrons
B) is less than the number of free electrons
C) is not equal to the number of free electrons
D) is greater than the number of free electrons
Answer: A (is equal to the number of free electrons)
A metal sphere is placed on an insulating stand. A negatively charged rod is brought close to it. If the sphere is earthed and the rod is taken away, what will be the charge on the sphere?
A) The sphere will remain neutral.
B) The sphere will have a net negative charge.
C) The sphere will have a net positive charge.
D) The sphere will become polarized
Answer: B (The sphere will have a net negative charge)
Calculate the absolute pressure at the bottom of a lake at a depth of 32.8 m. Assume the density of the water is 1 x 10-3 kgm-3 and the air above is at a pressure of 101.3 kPa.
Answer: Option A
Which of the following thermometers measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects?
A) Pyrometer thermometer
B) Platinum resistance thermometer
C) Thermocouple thermometer
D) Constant pressure gas thermometer
Answer: A (Pyrometer thermometer)
An air bubble of radius 4.5 cm initially at a depth of 12 m below the water surface rises to the surface. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to 10.34 m of water, the radius of the bubble just before it reaches the water surface is
Answer: Option to be provided later
What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a 0.02 kg of ice cube from to ?
Answer: Option to be provided later
Which process is responsible for production of energy in stars?
A) Nuclear reaction
B) Nuclear fission
C) Nuclear fusion
D) Radioactive decay
Answer: C (Nuclear fusion)
The working of the beam balance is based on the principle of
A) moments
B) conservation of energy
C) equivalence
D) floatation
Answer: A (moments)
How much work is done against the gravitational force on a 3.0 kg object when it is carried from the ground floor to the roof of a building, a vertical climb of 240 m?
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a type of incandescent light source?
A) Fluorescent lamp
B) LED lamp
C) Tungsten filament lamp
D) Neon lamp
Answer: C (Tungsten filament lamp)
The electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is
A) dilute tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid
B) barium chloride solution
C) potassium hydroxide solution
D) sodium hydroxide solution
Answer: C (potassium hydroxide solution)
A travelling wave of amplitude 0.80 m has a frequency of 16 Hz and a wave speed of 20. Calculate the wave number of the wave.
Answer: Option C
CHEMISTRY
What happens to the position of equilibrium if a reversible reaction is subjected to a decrease in temperature?
A) The position of equilibrium shifts to the left
B) The position of equilibrium shifts to the right.
C) The position of equilibrium remains unchanged
D) The reaction stops
Answer: Option A
Which of the following methods can be used to remove temporary hardness from water?
A) Boiling
B) Filtration
C) Distillation
D) Chlorination
Answer: Option A
Which type of salt is found in antacid medications and is used to relieve heartburn and indigestion?
A) Aluminum chloride
B) Magnesium chloride
C) Sodium chloride
D) Calcium chloride
Answer: Option B
At room temperature and standard pressure, chlorine gas is in which state of matter?
A) Plasma
B) Solid
C) Liquid
D) Gas
Answer: Option D
Why is water often referred to as the “universal solvent”?
A) Water is the most abundant substance on Earth
B) Water is essential for all living organisms.
C) Water is involved in many chemical reactions
D) Water can dissolve a wide variety of substances due to its polar nature
Answer: Option D
What is the chemical structure of soap and detergent molecules?
A) Hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
B) Hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail
C) Hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail
D) Hydrophilic tail and hydrophobic head
Answer: Option A
How many pi (
) bonds are there in an alkene with six carbon atoms?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
Answer: Option A
What is the molecular geometry of a molecule with three bonding pairs and no lone pairs around the central atom?
A) Tetrahedral
B) Trigonal planar
C) Linear
D) Octahedral
Answer: Option B
What is the solubility product constant (Ksp) used for?
A) To measure the total mass of a solute that can dissolve in a solvent
B) To determine the concentration of a solute in a saturated solution
C) To calculate the solubility of a solute in a given solvent
D) To compare the solubilities of different solutes in the same solvent
Answer: Option B
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure exerted by a gas is due to
A) The vibrations of gas particles.
B) The weight of the gas particles
C) The attractive forces between gas particles
D) The collisions of gas particles with the container walls
Answer: Option D
What is the valency of an element with the electronic configuration 2, 8, 7?
A) 7
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is a common property of non-metals?
A) Exist as solids at room temperature
B) Tend to gain electrons in chemical reactions
C) High thermal conductivity
D) Readily form cations in chemical reactions
Answer: Option B
Which of the following mixtures is an example of a colloid?
A) Milk
B) Orange juice
C) Saltwater
D) Sugar dissolved in water
Answer: Option A
What is the sum of the oxidation numbers in a neutral compound?
A) +2
B) -1
C) 0
D) +1
Answer: Option C
Which of the following methods is commonly used to remove suspended impurities from water?
A) Fluoridation
B) Chlorination
C) Filtration
D) Distillation
Answer: Option C
Which type of chemical combination involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of oppositely charged ions?
A) Ionic bonding
B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Covalent bonding
D) Metallic bonding
Answer: Option A
What is the chemical formula of rust, which is formed on the surface of iron in the presence of oxygen and moisture?
A) FeO
B) Fe₂O₃
C) Fe(OH)₃
D) Fe₃O₄
Answer: Option B
Which of the following metals is commonly alloyed with copper to make brass?
A) Iron
B) Nickel
C) Aluminum
D) Zinc
Answer: Option D
Balance the following redox reaction: Fe₃O₄ + CO → Fe + CO₂
A) Fe₃O₄ + CO → 2Fe + 2CO
B) 2Fe₃O₄ + 3CO → 4Fe + 3CO₂
C) Fe₃O₄ + 2CO → 2Fe + 2CO₂
D) Fe₃O₄ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
Answer: Option C
Which transition metal is known for its multiple colorful oxidation states and compounds used in pigments and paints?
A) Silver (Ag)
B) Copper (Cu)
C) Gold (Au)
D) Zinc (Zn)
Answer: Option B
A gas occupies a volume of 1.5 liters at a pressure of 2 atmospheres. If the pressure is increased to 4 atmospheres while the temperature remains constant, what will be the new volume of the gas?
A) 6 liters
B) 1.5 liters
C) 0.75 liters
D) 3 liters
Answer: Option C
Alkynes readily undergo addition reactions with which of the following?
A) Water (H₂O)
B) Oxygen gas (O₂)
C) Hydrogen gas (H₂)
D) Chlorine gas (Cl₂)
Answer: Option C
Benzene can be converted to its derivative toluene by the addition of a methyl group. The reaction is an example of
A) Nucleophilic substitution
B) Elimination reaction
C) Electrophilic substitution
D) Addition reaction
Answer: Option C
What is the empirical formula of a compound containing 40.00% carbon, 6.67% hydrogen, and 53.33% oxygen by mass?
A) CHO
B) CH₂O
C) C₂H₃O
D) C₃H₄O₂
Answer: Option B
Which functional group is present in alkanals?
A) Carbonyl group (C=O)
B) Hydroxyl group (-OH)
C) Alkyl group (-R)
D) Carboxyl group (-COOH)
Answer: Option A
What is the main source of carbon monoxide (CO) in urban areas?
A) Volcanic eruptions
B) Vehicle emissions
C) Forest fires
D) Industrial processes
Answer: Option B
Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
A) Cu
B) Zn
C) ZnSO₄
D) CuSO₄
Answer: Option B
Which trace gas in the atmosphere plays a significant role in the greenhouse effect?
A) Oxygen
B) Argon
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer: Option C
Isotopes of an element have
A) The same number of protons but different/same numbers of neutrons.
B) The same number of neutrons and electrons
C) The same number of protons and neutrons
D) The same number of protons and electrons
Answer: Option A
The heat of reaction can be determined experimentally using a device called a
A) Calorimeter
B) Barometer
C) Spectrometer
D) Thermometer
Answer: Option A
What is the principal ore of iron, from which iron is extracted?
A) Calcite
B) Bauxite
C) Magnetite
D) Hematite
Answer: Option D
What is the symbol used to represent an alpha particle?
A) α
B) γ
C) δ
D) β
Answer: Option A
What type of reaction is involved in the formation of alkanols from alkenes?
A) Elimination reaction
B) Redox reaction
C) Substitution reaction
D) Addition reaction
Answer: Option D
At 2.0 atm pressure, the volume of a gas is 4.0 L. If the pressure is reduced to 1.0 atm while keeping the temperature constant, what will be the new volume of the gas?
A) 2.0 L
B) 6.0 L
C) 8.0 L
D) 4.0 L
Answer: Option C
Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
A) Concentration of reactants
B) Presence of a catalyst
C) Molecular weight of products
D) Temperature
Answer: Option C
Stainless steel is an alloy made up of
A) Iron and zinc
B) Copper and tin
C) Iron and chromium
D) Iron and carbon
Answer: Option C
If gas A has a molar mass of 32 g/mol and gas B has a molar mass of 64 g/mol, what is the ratio of their diffusion rates?
A) 2:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:1
D) 1:4
Answer: Option A
What is the mass (in grams) of 500 mL of ethanol? (density of ethanol = 0.789 g/mL)
A) 394.5 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 394.5 g
D) 500 g
Answer: Option C
Who proposed the planetary model of the atom with electrons orbiting the nucleus?
A) Erwin Schrödinger
B) Ernest Rutherford
C) Niels Bohr
D) J.J. Thomson
Answer: Option C
Which of the following substances is NOT hygroscopic?
A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Silica gel
D) Aluminum
Answer: Option D
The contact process is used for the industrial production of
A) Sulfuric acid (H2SO4)
B) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
C) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
D) Calcium oxide (CaO)
Answer: Option A
Which of the following reactions would be expected to have the highest entropy change?
A) Liquid → Gas
B) Solid → Liquid
C) Gas → Liquid
D) Gas → Solid
Answer: Option A
Which of the following compounds is an example of an electrovalent bond?
A) NaCl (sodium chloride)
B) CO2 (carbon dioxide)
C) H2O (water)
D) CH4 (methane)
Answer: Option A
What is Faraday’s constant?
A) 6.022 x 10 mol
B) 3.00 x 10 m/s
C) 9.81 m/s
D) 96,485 C/mol
Answer: Option D
Which of the following alkanes has a straight-chain structure?
A) Cyclopentane (C5H10)
B) Isobutane (C4H10)
C) Butane (C4H10)
D) Pentane (C5H12)
Answer: Option D
When a substance is oxidized, it
A) Loses electrons
B) Gains oxygen atoms
C) Gains electrons
D) Loses protons (H+ ions)
Answer: Option A
What is the molar mass of water (H2O)?
A) 18 g/mol
B) 22 g/mol
C) 16 g/mol
D) 12 g/mol
Answer: Option A
What happens when alkanoic acids react with alcohols in the presence of an acid catalyst?
A) Saponification
B) Esterification
C) Polymerization
D) Hydrolysis
Answer: Option B
What happens to the value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) for a reaction if the reaction is reversed?
A) It becomes zero
B) It becomes negative
C) It remains the same
D) It becomes the reciprocal of the original value
Answer: Option D
Which organic compound is responsible for the characteristic aroma of fruits?
A) Alkane
B) Alkyne
C) Ester
D) Amine
Answer: Option C
What is the atomic number of aluminium?
A) 13
B) 26
C) 14
D) 12
Answer: Option A
What is the state of matter in which particles are widely spaced and move freely with high kinetic energy?
A) Liquid
B) Solid
C) Plasma
D) Gas
Answer: Option D
Which group does calcium belong to in the periodic table?
A) Alkaline earth metals
B) Halogens
C) Alkali metals
D) Noble gases
Answer: Option A
Which element is placed at the top of the electrochemical series?
A) Copper
B) Hydrogen
C) Sodium
D) Oxygen
Answer: Option B
What is the trend for ionization energy across a period in the periodic table?
A) Increases from left to right.
B) Remains constant
C) Varies randomly
D) Decreases from left to right
Answer: Option A
What is the common name for ethanoic acid?
A) Acetic acid
B) Butyric acid
C) Propionic acid
D) Formic acid
Answer: Option A
A blue litmus paper turns red when dipped into a solution. What does this indicate about the solution?
A) The solution is basic
B) The solution is neutral
C) The solution is acidic
D) The litmus paper is faulty
Answer: Option C
When an acidic solution is diluted, what happens to its pH?
A) It depends on the specific acid
B) It decreases
C) It remains the same
D) It increases
Answer: Option D
What is the name of the process by which ammonia is produced on an industrial scale?
A) Nitrogenation
B) Ammoniation
C) Nitrification
D) Haber process
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is a primary constituent of crude oil?
A) Pentane
B) Ethanol
C) Heptane
D) Methane
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is a unique property of water compared to other liquids?
A) It is a poor solvent
B) It does not evaporate
C) It expands when freezing
D) It has a low heat capacity
Answer: Option C
What is the main environmental concern associated with sulfur dioxide emissions?
A) Formation of acid rain
B) Global warming potential
C) Depletion of the stratospheric ozone
D) Depletion of the ozone layer
Answer: Option A
When anhydrous cobalt chloride paper is exposed to water, what color change is observed?
A) From pink to blue
B) From white to blue
C) From blue to white
D) From blue to pink
Answer: Option D
What is eutrophication?
A) The release of harmful chemicals into water bodies
B) The excessive growth of algae due to nutrient enrichment
C) The presence of heavy metals in water
D) The formation of oil slicks on water surfaces
Answer: Option B
Which separation technique is used to separate different pigments in a mixture based on their affinity for a stationary phase and a mobile phase?
A) Chromatography
B) Filtration
C) Decantation
D) Distillation
Answer: Option A
What is the mass percentage of carbon (C) in methane (CH4)?
A) 25%
B) 12%
C) 75%
D) 50%
Answer: Option C
Sodium reacts vigorously with water to produce
A) Sodium chloride (NaCl) and oxygen gas (O2)
B) Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) and water (H2O)
C) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrogen gas (H2)
D) Sodium oxide (Na2O) and hydrogen gas (H2)
Answer: Option C
What is the product of the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride (NaCl) using inert electrodes?
A) Hydrogen gas at the cathode and chlorine gas at the anode
B) Hydrogen gas at the cathode and oxygen gas at the anode
C) Sodium metal at the cathode and chlorine gas at the anode
D) Sodium metal at the cathode and oxygen gas at the anode
Answer: Option A
Which noble gas is radioactive and is produced as a decay product of uranium and thorium?
A) Argon
B) Krypton
C) Radon
D) Neon
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is an example of an endothermic reaction?
A) Combustion of propane (C₃H₈) to produce carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O).
B) Burning of methane (CH₄) in the presence of oxygen
C) Formation of table salt (NaCl) from sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl).
D) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) into water (H₂O) and oxygen (O₂).
Answer: Option D
BIOLOGY
Which of the following is the most inclusive level of classification in the Linnaean system?
A) Kingdom
B) Domain
C) Class
D) Phylum
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in plants?
A) Pollination
B) Vegetative propagation
C) Seed dispersal
D) Fertilization
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is the primary organ involved in gas exchange during respiration in humans?
A) Diaphragm
B) Bronchi
C) Lungs
D) Trachea
Answer: Option C
Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
A) The heart is responsible for the production of red blood cells
B) The heart pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
C) The heart receives blood from the kidneys and filters waste products
D) The heart is a muscular organ that contracts to circulate blood throughout the body
Answer: Option D
Which of the following characteristics is typical of the phylum Arthropoda?
A) Radial symmetry
B) Closed circulatory system
C) Endoskeleton made of bones
D) Presence of a segmented body
Answer: Option D
Which process in the nutrient cycle converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can utilize?
A) Denitrification
B) Nitrogen fixation
C) Ammonification
D) Nitrification
Answer: Option B
Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presences of:
A) II and III are correct
B) I and II are correct
C) I, II, III and IV are correct
D) III and IV are correct
Answer: Option B
A biome characterized by hot summer, warm winter and treeless vegetation is
A) Steppe grasslands
B) Temperate deserts
C) Savannah grassland
D) Tropical deserts
Answer: Option A
Which of the following describes the inheritance of traits from parents to offspring?
A) Adaptation
B) Evolution
C) Natural selection
D) Genetics
Answer: Option D
Which of the following options correctly identifies excretory organs in animals?
A) Stomach, intestines, and bladder
B) Lungs, kidneys, and skin
C) Brain, spinal cord, and nerves
D) Heart, liver, and spleen
Answer: Option B
Which processes are involved in nutrient cycling in a functioning ecosystem?
A) Erosion, weathering, and sedimentation
B) Decomposition, evaporation, and precipitation
C) Nitrogen fixation, denitrification, and ammonification
D) Respiration, photosynthesis, and transpiration
Answer: Option C
Which of the following eye defects is caused by the inability of the eye to focus light on the retina?
A) Glaucoma
B) Myopia
C) Cataracts
D) Astigmatism
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is the correct classification of carbohydrates?
A) Lipid
B) Phytonutrient
C) Macronutrient
D) Micronutrient
Answer: Option C
Which organs are part of the alimentary canal in the human digestive system?
A) Salivary glands, tongue, and pharynx
B) Large intestine, appendix, and rectum
C) Stomach, liver, and gallbladder
D) Oesophagus, pancreas, and small intestine
Answer: Option D
Which of the following statements about viruses is true?
A) Viruses can reproduce outside of a host cell
B) Viruses require a host cell to replicate
C) Viruses possess a cellular structure
D) Viruses are living organisms
Answer: Option B
What is the definition of population ecology?
A) The study of interactions between organisms and their physical environment
B) The study of evolutionary processes and their effects on populations
C) The study of interactions between different populations in an ecosystem
D) The study of the distribution and abundance of individuals within a species
Answer: Option D
Which of the following represents the correct hierarchical organization of life from the smallest to the largest scale?
A) Organs, tissues, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
B) Cells, organs, tissues, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
C) Tissues, organs, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
D) Cells, tissues, organs, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
Answer: Option D
Which of the following soil types becomes less fertile due to the intense leaching caused by tropical rains?
A) Yellow soil
B) Laterite soil
C) Red soils
D) Black soil
Answer: Option B
Which of the following factors primarily affects the distribution of organisms in an ecosystem?
A) Wind speed
B) Soil pH
C) Temperature
D) Day length
Answer: Option C
Which of the following statements is true regarding cell growth?
A) Cell growth is solely influenced by external factors
B) Cell growth is a continuous process throughout the life of a cell
C) Cell growth involves an increase in the number of organelles within a cell
D) Cell growth occurs by cell division
Answer: Option D
The term cell was given by
A) Robert Hooke
B) Schwann
C) De Bary
D) Tatum
Answer: Option A
Which of the following statements is true regarding the urinary tubule in the excretory system?
A) The urinary tubule is responsible for the production of urine
B) The urinary tubule regulates the water and electrolyte balance in the body
C) The urinary tubule connects the kidneys to the bladder
D) The urinary tubule is the site of filtration of blood
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is an example of an abiotic ecological factor?
A) Temperature
B) Competition
C) Predation
D) Symbiosis
Answer: Option A
Which type of reproduction involves the fusion of gametes from two parents?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Binary fission
D) Budding
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Plantae?
A) Presence of chloroplasts
B) Ability to perform photosynthesis
C) Lack of cell walls
D) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
Answer: Option A
Which of the following best describes the concept of trophic levels in a functioning ecosystem?
A) The levels of ecological interactions within an ecosystem
B) The levels of energy flow within an ecosystem
C) The levels of nutrient cycling within an ecosystem
D) The levels of biological diversity within an ecosystem
Answer: Option B
Which of the following statements is true regarding sexual reproduction in organisms?
A) It involves the fusion of gametes from two parents, resulting in offspring with genetic variation
B) It involves the production of offspring through a single parent, resulting in genetically identical offspring
C) It is a form of asexual reproduction where offspring are produced without the involvement of gametes
D) It does not involve the formation of gametes or the fusion of reproductive cells
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is NOT a method of reproduction in animals?
A) Asexual reproduction
B) Budding
C) Sexual reproduction
D) Sporulation
Answer: Option D
Which of the following are components of the skeletal system in humans?
A) Cartilage and blood vessels
B) Ligaments and tendons
C) Muscles and nerves
D) Bones and joints
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is an example of conserving resources in an ecosystem?
A) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
B) Introducing invasive species to an ecosystem
C) Implementing sustainable fishing practices
D) Cutting down trees for timber production
Answer: Option C
Which of the following statements is true regarding sex-linked traits?
A) Sex-linked traits are located on the sex chromosomes
B) Sex-linked traits are inherited only from the mother
C) Sex-linked traits are more commonly observed in females
D) Sex-linked traits are not influenced by hormonal factors
Answer: Option A
What is autotrophic nutrition?
A) Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by breaking down complex organic compounds.
B) Nutrition in which organisms obtain food from other organisms
C) Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by consuming both plants and animals
D) Nutrition in which organisms produce their own food using energy from the sun or inorganic substances
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is a plant hormone responsible for promoting cell elongation and growth?
A) Abscisic acid
B) Gibberellins
C) Ethylene
D) Cytokinins
Answer: Option B
The membrane around the vacuole is known as
A) Elaioplast
B) Amyloplast
C) Tonoplast
D) Cytoplast
Answer: Option C
Germination is the process in which a seed
A) Begins to photosynthesize
B) Develops into a mature plant
C) Absorbs nutrients from the soil
D) Breaks dormancy and starts to grow
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is evidence of evolution?
A) Homologous structures in different species
B) Similarities in embryonic development
C) Fossils of extinct organisms
D) All of the above.
Answer: Option D
What is the term used to describe the maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support indefinitely?
A) Ecological niche
B) Limiting factor
C) Carrying capacity
D) Density-dependent factor
Answer: Option C
Which of the following statements is true about the kingdom Fungi?
A) Fungi obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter
B) Fungi are photosynthetic organisms
C) Fungi are multicellular organisms
D) Fungi reproduce through the formation of seeds
Answer: Option A
Which of the following statements best describes courtship behaviors in animals?
A) Courtship behaviors are solely performed by males to establish dominance within a social group
B) Courtship behaviors involve displays and rituals performed by both males and females to attract a mate
C) Courtship behaviors are primarily performed by females to attract males for mating
D) Courtship behaviors are aggressive interactions between males competing for a female mate
Answer: Option B
Which of the following represents an example of ecological management and conservation through a biological association?
A) Construction of a dam for hydroelectric power
B) Introduction of an invasive species for pest control
C) Clear-cutting of a forest for timber extraction
D) Establishment of marine protected areas
Answer: Option D
Which of the following statements best describes the role of competition in the process of adaptation?
A) Competition leads to the selection of individuals with favorable traits for survival and reproduction
B) Competition ensures equal distribution of resources among individuals in a population
C) Competition leads to the development of new traits and adaptations in a population
D) Competition reduces the need for adaptations as individuals coexist peacefully
Answer: Option A
Which of the following processes is involved in the reproduction of developing organisms?
A) Budding
B) Germination
C) Fertilization
D) Pollination
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is a primary source of pollution in aquatic ecosystems?
A) Soil erosion
B) Industrial discharge
C) Air pollution
D) Deforestation
Answer: Option B
The alternate form of a gene is
A) Alternate type
B) Dominant character
C) Recessive character
D) Allele
Answer: Option D
In monohybrid inheritance, if an organism carries two different alleles for a particular gene, it is called:
A) Homozygous
B) Dominant
C) Heterozygous
D) Recessive
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is an example of conserving resources in an ecosystem?
A) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
B) Introducing invasive species to an ecosystem
C) Implementing sustainable fishing practices
D) Cutting down trees for timber production
Answer: Option C
Which gland is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Pituitary gland
C) Pancreas
D) Adrenal gland
Answer: Option C
Viviparity refers to the reproductive strategy in which
A) Offspring are produced by internal fertilization
B) Offspring are produced by external fertilization
C) Offspring develop and are nourished inside the female’s body
D) Offspring develop and are nourished outside the female’s body
Answer: Option C
What are the primary products of photosynthesis?
A) Carbon dioxide and water
B) Glucose and oxygen
C) Glucose and carbon dioxide
D) Oxygen and water
Answer: Option B
Which of the following best describes a natural habitat in ecology?
A) An area where organisms naturally live and interact with their surroundings
B) A human-created environment for wildlife conservation
C) A controlled laboratory setting for ecological experiments
D) A protected area for endangered species
Answer: Option A
Which of the following statements best describes pollination in plants?
A) Pollination is the process of transferring pollen from the stigma to the anther of a flower
B) Pollination is the process of transferring pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower
C) Pollination is the process of releasing pollen into the air for dispersal
D) Pollination is the process of seed formation within a flower
Answer: Option B
Behavioral adaptation for dealing with a hot climate could include
A) Hibernating during the hottest part of the day
B) Large scales on the back of a lizard
C) Feeding during the hottest part of the day
D) A small kidney to conserve water
Answer: Option A
The theory of evolution can be defined as
A) The belief that all species were created in their current form
B) The hypothesis that organisms strive to improve themselves over generations
C) The idea that species change over time through natural processes
D) The concept that evolution occurs through a series of sudden and dramatic changes
Answer: Option C
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for providing support in plants?
A) Muscles and bones
B) Exoskeleton
C) Endocrine system
D) Cell walls and turgor pressure
Answer: Option D
Metamorphosis is a biological process that involves
A) The growth and development of an organism from a zygote to an adult
B) The change in form and structure during the life cycle of certain organisms
C) The regeneration of lost body parts in an organism
D) The transformation of an organism from an adult stage to a larval stage
Answer: Option B
Which of the following plant tissues is responsible for transporting water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A) Mesophyll
B) Xylem
C) Epidermis
D) Phloem
Answer: Option B
Which organ is primarily responsible for excretion in humans?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Kidneys
D) Lungs
Answer: Option C
Which of the following best describes physiological variation in biology?
A) Variations in the physiological processes and functions of organisms
B) Differences in physical characteristics and appearance within a population
C) Differences in behavior and social interactions among individuals
D) Variations in the genetic makeup of individuals within a species
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a male reproductive organ in humans?
A) Uterus
B) Ovary
C) Testis
D) Fallopian tube
Answer: Option C
Which of the following describes the inheritance of traits from parents to offspring?
A) Evolution
B) Adaptation
C) Genetics
D) Natural selection
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
What is the tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A) Xylem
B) Epidermis
C) Parenchyma
D) Phloem
Answer: Option A
Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?
A) Arteries
B) Venules
C) Capillaries
D) Veins
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is an evolutionary trend commonly observed in organisms?
A) Decreased complexity over time
B) Increased dependence on external resources
C) Increased genetic diversity within populations
D) Decreased adaptation to the environment
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation for survival in animals?
A) Sharp teeth
B) Migration
C) Wings
D) Camouflage
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is an example of a microorganism in action as a disease vector?
A) Fungi decomposing dead plant material
B) Mosquito transmitting malaria
C) Bacteria causing food poisoning
D) Algae producing oxygen through photosynthesis
Answer: Option B
Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?
A) Platelets
B) White blood cells
C) Red blood cells
D) Plasma
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is an example of physiological variation in organisms?
A) Variation in blood pressure among individuals
B) Variation in beak shape among finches
C) Differences in fur color in rabbits
D) Variation in leaf shape in plants
Answer: Option A
What is the primary source of variation in a population?
A) Gene flow
B) Mutation
C) Natural selection
D) Genetic drift
Answer: Option B
Which of the following traits is not visible in a person with Down syndrome?
A) Short neck
B) High muscle tone
C) Small stature
D) Slant eyes
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is an example of an adaptation for survival in social insects?
A) Migration to warmer climates
B) Production of venom for defense
C) Formation of complex caste systems
D) Hibernation during winter months
Answer: Option C
The natural place of an organism or community is known as
A) Niche
B) Habit
C) Biome
D) Habitat
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal?
A) Oesophagus
B) Large intestine
C) Liver
D) Small intestine
Answer: Option C
Which of the following functions is performed by the skin to help maintain homeostasis in the human body?
A) Regulation of body temperature
B) Filtration of blood
C) Production of hormones
D) Digestion of food
Answer: Option A
GOVERNMENT
Which of the following is not a source of public opinion?
A) Social media
B) Academic Journals
C) Opinion polls
D) Political parties
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is a limitation of pressure groups?
A) They only represent the interests of the wealthy.
B) They have no influence on government policies.
C) They may prioritize their own interests over the public interest.
D) They often resort to violent tactics.
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is a right associated with citizenship?
A) Right to education
B) Right to vote
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to property
Answer: Option B
If the president refuses to sign a bill within a specific period, it can still become a law through
A) Legislative override
B) None of the above
C) Judicial review
D) Public petition
Answer: Option A
The process of forming public opinion is known as
A) Polling
B) Socialization
C) Mobilization
D) Persuasion
Answer: Option B
Jus Sanguinis is a principle that grants citizenship based on
A) Parental citizenship
B) Place of birth
C) Ethnic background
D) Length of residency
Answer: Option A
Nigeria’s foreign policy is influenced by its position as a major exporter of
A) Military equipment
B) Natural resources
C) Agricultural products
D) Technology
Answer: Option B
When there is an election that fails to produce a clear winner, the process of determining a winner is called
A) A recall
B) A re-run election
C) A bye-election
D) A referendum
Answer: Option B
Who is the current chairperson of ECOWAS in 2023?
A) Bola Ahmed Tinubu
B) Alassane Ouattara
C) Macky Sall
D) Nana-Akufo Ado
Answer: Option A
Which political party was known for its socialist ideology and populist policies in the 1980s?
A) People’s Redemption Party
B) All Nigeria’s People’s Party
C) National Party of Nigeria
D) Nigerian National Democratic Party
Answer: Option A
Which of the following statements about pressure groups is true?
A) They have no influence on the decision-making process.
B) They can have both positive and negative impact on the government.
C) They operate independently of the government.
D) They are only concerned with social issues.
Answer: Option B
Without presidential assent, the legislature can pass a bill into law with the votes of ______ majority
A) One-fifth
B) Two-thirds
C) One-third
D) Absolute
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is the basic unit of a local government in Nigeria?
A) State assembly
B) Ward
C) Local Council Development Area (LCDA)
D) Ministry of Local government
Answer: Option B
In a parliamentary system, the head of government is usually the
A) Chief Justice
B) King or Queen
C) President
D) Prime minister
Answer: Option D
Nigeria’s foreign policy is guided by the principle of
A) Military dominance
B) Economic self-sufficiency
C) National interest
D) Territorial expansion
Answer: Option C
Which pre-colonial Nigerian Kingdom was known for its artistic and cultural achievement?
A) Nupe
B) Igbo
C) Kanem-Bornu
D) Benin
Answer: Option D
Which institution is responsible for the regulation and supervision of capital markets in Nigeria?
A) Nigerian Stock Exchange (NSE)
B) Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
C) Financial Reporting Council of Nigeria (FRCN)
D) Corporate Affairs Commission (CAC)
Answer: Option B
A key principle of the socialist system of government is the ___________.
A) Minimal government intervention in the economy
B) Private ownership of the means of production
C) Power concentrated in the hands of a few elite individuals
D) Equality of opportunity and outcome
Answer: Option D
What is the term for a system of government in which power is held by a small group of people?
A) Oligarchy
B) Monarchy
C) Theocracy
D) Democracy
Answer: Option A
Conservatism is an ideology that emphasizes
A) Individual freedom and limited government intervention
B) Radical social change and progress
C) Equal distribution of wealth
D) Traditional values and institutions
Answer: Option D
The electoral system used in Nigeria is primarily based on __________
A) Mixed-member proportional
B) Preferential voting
C) First-past-the-post
D) Proportional representation
Answer: Option C
The process of selecting candidates to represent a political party in elections is known as
A) Campaigning
B) Primaries
C) Electioneering
D) Lobbying
Answer: Option B
Judges in the International Court of Justice are appointed for a period of _____ years.
A) Twelve
B) Five
C) Four
D) Nine
Answer: Option D
Which of the following African leaders played a significant role in the formation of NEPAD?
A) Julius Nyerere
B) Nelson Mandela
C) Muammar Gaddafi
D) Robert Mugabe
Answer: Option B
In a parliamentary system of government, the executive branch is
A) Under the control of the judiciary
B) Combined with the legislative branch
C) Elected through popular votes
D) Separate from the legislative branch
Answer: Option B
The Oputa panel was established in Nigeria to
A) Monitor military spending
B) Facilitate arms trade regulations
C) Investigate human rights abuses during the military rule
D) Promote military intervention in politics
Answer: Option C
A major event in Nigerian history that led to the suspension of Nigeria’s constitution and the declaration of a state of emergency by the colonial authorities in 1953 was the ________.
A) Aba women’s riot
B) Zikist movement
C) Kano riots
D) Action Group crisis
Answer: Option D
Which African country experienced a violent resistance movement against British colonial rule known as the Mau Mau rebellion?
A) Sudan
B) Kenya
C) Ghana
D) Nigeria
Answer: Option B
The Commonwealth of Nations was initially known as
A) British Commonwealth
B) Imperial Commonwealth
C) Commonwealth Realm
D) League of Nations
Answer: Option A
The process of decolonization in Nigeria was hugely impacted by
A) The Renaissance
B) World War I
C) The Cold War
D) World War II
Answer: Option D
Nigeria shares its longest border with which West African country?
A) Niger
B) Chad
C) Ghana
D) Benin
Answer: Option A
In a parliamentary system of government, the head of government is typically ___________.
A) Elected directly by the people
B) The leader of the majority party in the legislature
C) Appointed by the judiciary
D) Chosen by the head of state
Answer: Option B
Which of the following countries operate a direct democracy?
A) Russia
B) United Kingdom
C) United States of America
D) Switzerland
Answer: Option D
Which African country successfully resisted European imperialism and maintained its independence?
A) Ghana
B) Ethiopia
C) Kenya
D) Algeria
Answer: Option B
The 1963 constitution created a list of powers exclusively reserved for the
A) Federal government
B) State governments
C) Regional governments
D) Local governments
Answer: Option A
The National assembly is composed of how many chambers?
A) Two
B) Four
C) One
D) Three
Answer: Option A
The electoral commission that organized the 1979 general elections was
A) FEDECO
B) INEC
C) ECN
D) NECON
Answer: Option A
In proportional representation electoral system, seats in the legislature are allocated based on
A) Primary elections
B) Political party membership
C) The percentage of votes a party receives
D) A winner-takes-all system
Answer: Option C
Pressure groups primarily aim to
A) Promote social equality and justice
B) Gain political power and control
C) Influence public opinion through media campaigns
D) Disrupt the functioning of the government
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is a function of public commissions?
A) Managing public transportation
B) Enforcing criminal laws
C) Conducting investigations and enquiries
D) Implementing foreign policies
Answer: Option C
The current constitution of Nigeria is based on the model of which country?
A) Germany
B) United States
C) France
D) United Kingdom
Answer: Option B
In which system of government is the executive and legislature fused?
A) Cabinet
B) Presidential
C) Unitary
D) Federal
Answer: Option A
Which constitution established the Public Service Commission?
A) The 1963 constitution
B) The 1979 constitution
C) The 1999 constitution
D) The 1989 constitution
Answer: Option B
The arm of government responsible for budget approval and oversight is the
A) Judiciary
B) Executive
C) Administrative
D) Legislative
Answer: Option D
What is the primary source of revenue for the local government in Nigeria?
A) Taxes
B) Grants from foreign countries
C) Oil revenue
D) Federal government allocations
Answer: Option D
When Africa is the centrepiece of Nigeria’s foreign policy, it is said to be _________
A) Afrocentric
B) Regional
C) Concentric
D) Pan-African
Answer: Option A
The term ‘lobbying’ refers to
A) Campaigning for political office
B) Advocating for social justice
C) Organizing grassroots movements
D) Seeking to influence government decisions
Answer: Option D
Public corporations and parastatals are typically established by
A) Private individuals
B) Legislative acts and statutes
C) Trade unions
D) International organizations
Answer: Option B
The Ijaw people of pre-colonial Nigeria were organized into?
A) Grades
B) Clans
C) Federations
D) Chiefdoms
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is a characteristic of pressure groups?
A) They aim to gain political power
B) They are funded by the government
C) They are political parties
D) They represent the interest of a specific section of society
Answer: Option D
During the Cold War, Nigeria’s foreign policy was characterized by
A) Alignment with the United States
B) Neutrality and non-alignment
C) Pursuit of colonial interest
D) Alignment with the Soviet Union
Answer: Option B
The constitutional amendment process in Nigeria requires the approval of
A) The Independent National Electoral Commission (INEC)
B) The National Assembly
C) The President
D) The Supreme Court
Answer: Option B
Nigeria is a founding member of which regional organization?
A) ECOWAS
B) Non-aligned Movement
C) OPEC
D) IMF
Answer: Option A
Which document serves as the constitution of the United Nations?
A) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B) Geneva Conventions
C) Treaty of the Non-proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
D) Charter of the United Nations
Answer: Option D
Which Nigerian leader advocated for the New Partnership for Africa’s Development (NEPAD)?
A) Olusegun Obasanjo
B) Yakubu Gowon
C) Muhammadu Buhari
D) Shehu Shagari
Answer: Option A
The policy of ‘indigenization’ was introduced under the regime of?
A) General Yakubu Gowon
B) General Olusegun Obasanjo
C) General Ibrahim Babangida
D) General Sani Abacha
Answer: Option A
The civil service in Nigeria operates under the principle of
A) Autonomy
B) Separation of powers
C) None of the above
D) Meritocracy
Answer: Option D
Which of the following is a fundamental principle of democratic governance?
A) Centralized decision-making
B) Censorship of the media
C) Citizen Participation
D) Authoritarianism
Answer: Option C
In a communist system, who owns and controls the means of production?
A) Corporations
B) The government
C) Private individuals
D) Non-profit organizations
Answer: Option B
The zoning system in Nigerian politics refers to
A) The rotation of power among different regions
B) The process of selecting party leaders
C) The allocation of campaign funds
D) The system of proportional representation
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a concurrent power in the Nigerian federal system?
A) Currency and coinage
B) Education and Healthcare
C) Foreign affairs and international relations
D) Defense and National security
Answer: Option B
Which of the following documents granted Nigeria its independence?
A) The Lancaster House Agreement
B) The Atlantic Charter
C) The Nigerian Independence Act
D) The United Nations Declaration on Decolonization
Answer: Option C
Civil servants are typically protected by
A) Military forces and security agencies
B) Civil service commission
C) Trade union and labour laws
D) Human rights organizations
Answer: Option B
The Nigerian constitution guarantees freedom of speech under which fundamental right?
A) Right to freedom of thought
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to freedom of expression
D) Right to life
Answer: Option C
Public opinion refers to
A) the opinion of majority of the people in a society
B) the opinion of the media
C) the opinion of political leaders
D) the opinion of intellectuals and scholars
Answer: Option A
__________ was a major factor that contributed to the rise of the Sokoto Caliphate.
A) Agricultural revolution.
B) Slave trade
C) European colonization
D) Islamic Jihad
Answer: Option D
What is the main source of funding for public corporations in Nigeria?
A) Government budget allocations
B) Foreign aid
C) Revenues generated from their operations
D) Donations from private companies
Answer: Option A
Which of the following is a feature of Nigerian Federalism?
A) Single-party system
B) Centralized fiscal system
C) Autonomy of local government
D) Strong central government
Answer: Option C
Which of the following was a significant trade commodity in the pre-colonial Kingdom of Benin?
A) Ivory
B) Gold
C) Rubber
D) Salt
Answer: Option A
The judiciary checks the other arms of government through
A) Judicial recall
B) Judicial precedence
C) Judicial review
D) Judicial oversight
Answer: Option C
Source: www.Ghgossip.com
